Re: Fencing

Posted by Greywolf on May 17, 2005 at 02:27:39 from (216.16.79.191):

In Reply to: Re: Fencing posted by Mike Burdick on May 16, 2005 at 21:07:55:

That doesn't happen because you are "using" the land outside and beyond the fence.

It isn't so much the fence that sets the boundries as the "you not using" the property on the other side.

In Paul's description, that theroetical 1' becomes useless to the original owner. The property owner on the other side is using his property.

After a set number of years, IF the owner on the other side wishes to challenge the propterty line, the courts view that 1' as being abondoned by the original owner.

Does that make sense to YOU???????

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